Email: Chapter 30, Article 4A
§30-4A-1. Requirement for anesthesia permit; qualifications and requirements for qualified monitors.
(a) No dentist may induce central nervous system anesthesia without first having obtained an anesthesia permit for the level of anesthesia being induced.
(b) The applicant for an anesthesia permit shall pay the appropriate permit fees and renewal fees, submit a completed board-approved application and consent to an office evaluation.
(c) Permits shall be renewed annually by June 30.
(d) Permit holders shall report the names and qualifications of each qualified monitor providing services to that permit holder. A qualified monitor may not perform the functions and responsibilities specified in this article for any level of anesthesia, other than relative analgesia/minimal sedation, without certification by the board. Qualified monitors shall apply for certification and pay the appropriate application fees and renewal fees. Qualified monitors are required to renew annually by the June 30. To be certified as a qualified monitor, the applicant must meet the following minimum qualifications:
(1) Possess a current health care provider BLS/CPR certification;
(2) For monitoring, conscious sedation/moderate sedation or general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation procedures, successful completion of an AAOMS or AAPD anesthesia assistants certification program; and
(3) For monitoring a nitrous oxide unit, successful completion of a board-approved course in nitrous oxide monitoring.
(e) A dentist shall hold a class permit equivalent to or exceeding the anesthesia level being provided unless the provider of anesthesia is a physician anesthesiologist or another licensed dentist who holds a current anesthesia permit issued by the board.
§30-4A-2. Presumption of Degree of Central Nervous System Depression.
(a) In any hearing where a question exists as to the level of central nervous system depression a licensee has induced, as outlined in this article, the board may base its findings on, among other things, the types, dosages and routes of administration of drugs administered to the patient and what result can reasonably be expected from those drugs in those dosages and routes administered in a patient of that physical and psychological status.
(b) No permit holder may have more than one person under conscious sedation/moderate sedation and/or general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation at the same time, exclusive of recovery.
§30-4A-3. Classes of anesthesia permits.
(a) The board shall issue the following permits:
(1) Class 2 Permit: A Class 2 Permit authorizes a dentist to induce anxiolysis/minimal sedation.
(2) Class 3 Permit: A Class 3 Permit authorizes a dentist to induce conscious sedation/moderate sedation as limited enteral (3a) and/or comprehensive parenteral (3b) and anxiolysis/minimal sedation.
(3) Class 4 Permit: A Class 4 Permit authorizes a dentist to induce general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation, conscious sedation/moderate sedation and anxiolysis/minimal sedation.
(b) When anesthesia services are provided in dental facilities by a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy physician anesthesiologist or dentist anesthesiologist, the dental facility shall be inspected and approved for a Class 4 permit and the dentist shall have a minimum of a Class 2 permit. If anesthesia services are provided by a CRNA, the dental facility shall be inspected and approved for a Class 4 permit and the supervising dentist shall have the same level of permit for the level of anesthesia provided by the CRNA.
§30-4A-4. Qualifications, standards and continuing education requirements for relative analgesia/minimal sedation use.
(a) The board shall allow administration of relative analgesia/minimal sedation if the practitioner:
(1) Is a licensed dentist in the state;
(2) Holds valid and current documentation showing successful completion of a Health Care Provider BLS/CPR course; and
(3) Has completed a training course of instruction in dental school, continuing education or as a postgraduate in the administration of relative analgesia/minimal sedation.
(b) A practitioner who administers relative analgesia/minimal sedation shall have the following facilities, equipment and drugs available during the procedure and during recovery:
(1) An operating room large enough to adequately accommodate the patient on an operating table or in an operating chair and to allow delivery of age appropriate care in an emergency situation;
(2) An operating table or chair which permits the patient to be positioned so that the patient's airway can be maintained, quickly alter the patient's position in an emergency and provide a firm platform for the administration of basic life support;
(3) A lighting system which permits evaluation of the patient's skin and mucosa color and a backup lighting system of sufficient intensity to permit completion of any operation underway in the event of a general power failure;
(4) Suction equipment which permits aspiration of the oral and pharyngeal cavities;
(5) An oxygen delivery system with adequate age appropriate full face masks and appropriate connectors that is capable of delivering high flow oxygen to the patient under positive pressure, together with an adequate backup system;
(6) A nitrous oxide delivery system with a fail-safe mechanism that will ensure appropriate continuous oxygen delivery and a scavenger system; and
(7) A defibrillator device: Provided, That this requirement is only for Class 2, 3 and 4 permitees.
(c) All equipment used shall be appropriate for the height and weight and age of the patient.
(d) Before inducing relative analgesia/minimal sedation by means of nitrous oxide or a single premedication agent, a practitioner shall:
(1) Evaluate the patient;
(2) Give instruction to the patient or, when appropriate due to age or psychological status of the patient, the patient's guardian; and
(3) Certify that the patient is an appropriate candidate for relative analgesia/minimal sedation.
(e) A practitioner who administers relative analgesia/minimal sedation shall see that the patient's condition is visually monitored. At all times, the patient shall be observed by a qualified monitor until discharge criteria have been met.
(f) A qualified monitor's record shall include documentation of all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration including local anesthesia.
(g) A discharge entry shall be made in the patient's record indicating the patient's condition upon discharge.
(h) A qualified monitor shall hold valid and current documentation:
(1) Showing successful completion of a Health Care Provider BLS/CPR course; and
(2) Have received training and be competent in the recognition and treatment of medical emergencies, monitoring vital signs, the operation of nitrous oxide delivery systems and the use of the sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.
(i) The practitioner shall assess the patient's responsiveness using preoperative values as normal guidelines and discharge the patient only when the following criteria are met:
(1) The patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time as appropriate to age and preoperative neurological status;
(2) The patient can talk and respond coherently to verbal questioning or to preoperative neurological status;
(3) The patient can sit up unaided or without assistance or to preoperative neurological status;
(4) The patient can ambulate with minimal assistance or to preoperative neurological status; and
(5) The patient does not have uncontrollable nausea, vomiting or dizziness.
§30-4A-5. Qualifications, standards, and continuing education requirements for a Class 2 Permit.
(a) The board shall issue a Class 2 Permit to an applicant who:
(1) Is a licensed dentist in West Virginia;
(2) Holds valid and current documentation showing successful completion of a Health Care Provider BLS/CPR; and
(3) Has completed a board approved course of at least six hours didactic and clinical of either predoctoral dental school or postgraduate instruction.
(b) A dentist who induces relative analgesia/minimal sedation and anxiolysis/minimal sedation shall have the following facilities, properly maintained equipment and appropriate drugs available during the procedures and during recovery:
(1) An operating room large enough to adequately accommodate the patient on an operating table or in an operating chair and to allow an operating team of at least two individuals to freely move about the patient;
(2) An operating table or chair which permits the patient to be positioned so the operating team can maintain the patient's airway, quickly alter the patient's position in an emergency and provide a firm platform for the administration of basic life support;
(3) A lighting system which permits evaluation of the patient's skin and mucosal color and a backup lighting system of sufficient intensity to permit completion of any operation underway in the event of a general power failure;
(4) Suction equipment which permits aspiration of the oral and pharyngeal cavities;
(5) An oxygen delivery system with adequate age appropriate full face mask and appropriate connectors that is capable of delivering high flow oxygen to the patient under positive pressure, together with an adequate backup system;
(6) A nitrous oxide delivery system with a fail-safe mechanism that will ensure appropriate continuous oxygen delivery and a scavenger system;
(7) A recovery area that has available oxygen, adequate lighting, suction and electrical outlets. The recovery area can be the operating room;
(8) Sphygmomanometer, stethoscope and pulse oximeter;
(9) Emergency drugs as specified by rule;
(10) A defibrillator device; and
(11) All equipment and medication dosages shall be in accordance with the height and weight and age of the patient being treated.
(c) Before inducing anxiolysis/minimal sedation, a dentist shall:
(1) Evaluate the patient by using the ASA Patient Physical Status Classification of the ASA that the patient is an appropriate candidate for anxiolysis/minimal sedation; and
(2) Obtain written informed consent from the patient or patient's guardian for the anesthesia. The obtaining of the informed consent shall be documented in the patient's record.
(d) The dentist shall monitor and record the patient's condition or shall use a qualified monitor to monitor and record the patient's condition. The documented requirements of a qualified monitor monitoring anxiolysis/minimal sedation cases are as specified by rule. A Class 2 Permit holder may have no more than one person under anxiolysis/minimal sedation at the same time.
(e) The patient shall be monitored as follows:
(1) Patients shall have continuous monitoring using pulse oximetry. The patient's blood pressure, heart rate and respiration shall be recorded at least once before, during and after the procedure and these recordings shall be documented in the patient record. At all times, the patient shall be observed by a qualified monitor until discharge criteria have been met. If the dentist is unable to obtain this information, the reasons shall be documented in the patient's record. The record shall also include documentation of all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration including local anesthesia.
(2) A discharge entry shall be made by the dentist in the patient's record indicating the patient's condition upon discharge.
(f) A permit holder who uses anxiolysis/minimal sedation shall see that the patient's condition is visually monitored. The patient shall be monitored as to response to verbal stimulation, oral mucosal color and preoperative and postoperative vital signs.
(g) The dentist shall assess the patient's responsiveness using preoperative values as normal guidelines and discharge the patient only when the following criteria are met:
(1) Vital signs including blood pressure, pulse rate and respiratory rate are stable;
(2) The patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time as appropriate to age and preoperative neurological status;
(3) The patient can talk and respond coherently to verbal questioning or to preoperative neurological status;
(4) The patient can sit up unaided or to preoperative neurological status;
(5) The patient can ambulate with minimal assistance or to preoperative neurological status; and
(6) The patient does not have uncontrollable nausea or vomiting and has minimal dizziness.
(h) A dentist may not release a patient who has undergone anxiolysis/minimal sedation except to the care of a responsible adult third party.
§30-4A-6. Qualifications, standards, and continuing education requirements for Class 3 Anesthesia Permit.
(a) The board shall issue or renew a Class 3 Permit to an applicant who:
(1) Is a licensed dentist in West Virginia;
(2) Holds valid and current documentation showing successful completion of a Health Care Provider BLS/CPR course, ACLS and/or a PALS course if treating pediatric patients; and
(3) Satisfies one of the following criteria:
(A) Certificate of completion of a comprehensive training program in conscious sedation that satisfies the requirements described in the ADA Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students and the ADA Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists at the time training was commenced.
(B) Certificate of completion of an ADA-accredited postdoctoral training program which affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage conscious sedation commensurate with these guidelines.
(C) In lieu of these requirements, the board may accept documented evidence of equivalent training or experience in conscious sedation anesthesia for Limited Enteral Permit as Class 3a or comprehensive Parenteral Permit as Class 3b as specified by rule.
(b) A dentist who induces conscious sedation shall have the following facilities, properly maintained age appropriate equipment and age appropriate medications available during the procedures and during recovery:
(1) An operating room large enough to adequately accommodate the patient on an operating table or in an operating chair and to allow an operating team of at least two individuals to freely move about the patient;
(2) An operating table or chair which permits the patient to be positioned so the operating team can maintain the patient's airway, quickly alter the patient's position in an emergency, and provide a firm platform for the administration of basic life support;
(3) A lighting system which permits evaluation of the patient's skin and mucosal color and a backup lighting system of sufficient intensity to permit completion of any operation underway in the event of a general power failure;
(4) Suction equipment which permits aspiration of the oral and pharyngeal cavities and a backup suction device which will function in the event of a general power failure;
(5) An oxygen delivery system with adequate age appropriate full face mask and appropriate connectors that is capable of delivering high flow oxygen to the patient under positive pressure, together with an adequate backup system;
(6) A nitrous oxide delivery system with a fail-safe mechanism that will ensure appropriate continuous oxygen delivery and a scavenger system;
(7) A recovery area that has available oxygen, adequate lighting, suction and electrical outlets. The recovery area can be the operating room;
(8) Sphygmomanometer, pulse oximeter, oral and nasopharyngeal airways, intravenous fluid administration equipment and/or equipment required for the standard of care or as specified by rule;
(9) Emergency drugs as specified by rule; and
(10) A defibrillator device.
(c) Before inducing conscious sedation, a dentist shall:
(1) Evaluate the patient and document, using the ASA Patient Physical Status Classifications, that the patient is an appropriate candidate for conscious sedation;
(2) Give written preoperative and postoperative instructions to the patient or, when appropriate due to age or neurological status of the patient, the patient's guardian; and
(3) Obtain written informed consent from the patient or patient's guardian for the anesthesia.
(d) The dentist shall ensure that the patient's condition is monitored and recorded on a contemporaneous record. The dentist shall use a qualified monitor to monitor and record the patient's condition in addition to the chair side dental assistant. A qualified monitor shall be present to monitor the patient at all times.
(e) The patient shall be monitored as follows:
(1) Patients shall have continuous monitoring using pulse oximetry and/or equipment required for the standard of care or as specified by rule by a qualified monitor until discharge criteria have been met. The documented requirements of a qualified monitor monitoring limited enteral or comprehensive parenteral sedations cases are as specified by rule. The patient's blood pressure, heart rate and respiration shall be recorded every five minutes and these recordings shall be documented in the patient record. The record shall also include documentation of preoperative and postoperative vital signs, all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration including local anesthesia. If the dentist is unable to obtain this information, the reasons shall be documented in the patient's record.
(2) During the recovery phase, the patient shall be monitored by a qualified monitor.
(3) A discharge entry shall be made by the dentist in the patient's record indicating the patient's condition upon discharge and the name of the responsible party to whom the patient was discharged.
(f) A dentist may not release a patient who has undergone conscious sedation/moderate sedation except to the care of a responsible adult third party.
(g) When discharging a pediatric patient the dentist shall follow the current edition of AAPD Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures.
(h) The dentist shall assess the patient's responsiveness using preoperative values as normal guidelines and discharge the patient only when the following criteria are met:
(1) Vital signs including blood pressure, pulse rate and respiratory rate are stable;
(2) The patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time as appropriate to age and preoperative neurological status;
(3) The patient can talk and respond coherently to verbal questioning or to preoperative neurological status;
(4) The patient can sit up unaided or to preoperative neurological status;
(5) The patient can ambulate with minimal assistance or to preoperative neurological status; and
(6) The patient does not have uncontrollable nausea or vomiting and has minimal dizziness.
(i) A dentist who induces conscious sedation shall employ the services of a qualified monitor and a chair side dental assistant at all times who each shall hold a valid BLS/CPR certification and maintains certification as specified by rule.
§30-4A-6a.
Repealed.
Acts, 2013 Reg. Sess., Ch. 150.
§30-4A-6b.
Repealed.
Acts, 2013 Reg. Sess., Ch. 150.
§30-4A-6c.
Repealed.
Acts, 2013 Reg. Sess., Ch. 150.
§30-4A-6d.
Repealed.
Acts, 2013 Reg. Sess., Ch. 150.
§30-4A-7. Qualifications, standards, and continuing education requirements for Class 4 Anesthesia Permit.
(a) A Class 4 Permit permits the use of general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation, conscious sedation/moderate sedation and anxiolysis/minimal sedation.
(b) The board shall issue or renew a Class 4 Permit to an applicant who:
(1) Is a licensed dentist in West Virginia;
(2) Holds a valid and current documentation showing successful completion of a Healthcare Provider BLS/CPR course, Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) and/or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) course if treating pediatric patients;
(3) Satisfies one of the following criteria:
(A) Completion of an advanced training program in anesthesia and related subjects beyond the undergraduate dental curriculum that satisfies the requirements described in the ADA Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students and the ADA Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists at the time training was commenced;
(B) Completion of an ADA- or AMA-accredited postdoctoral training program which affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage general anesthesia, commensurate with these guidelines;
(C) In lieu of these requirements, the board may accept documented evidence of equivalent training or experience in general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation.
(c) A dentist who induces general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation shall have the following facilities, properly maintained age appropriate equipment and age appropriate drugs available during the procedure and during recovery:
(1) An operating room large enough to adequately accommodate the patient on an operating table or in an operating chair and to allow an operating team of at least three individuals to freely move about the patient;
(2) An operating table or chair which permits the patient to be positioned so the operating team can maintain the patient's airway, quickly alter the patient's position in an emergency and provide a firm platform for the administration of basic life support;
(3) A lighting system which permits evaluation of the patient's skin and mucosal color and a backup lighting system of sufficient intensity to permit completion of any operation underway in the event of a general power failure;
(4) Suction equipment which permits aspiration of the oral and pharyngeal cavities and a backup suction device which will function in the event of a general power failure;
(5) An oxygen delivery system with adequate age appropriate full face mask and appropriate connectors that is capable of delivering high flow oxygen to the patient under positive pressure, together with an adequate backup system;
(6) A nitrous oxide delivery system with a fail-safe mechanism that will insure appropriate continuous oxygen delivery and a scavenger system;
(7) A recovery area that has available oxygen, adequate lighting, suction and electrical outlets. The recovery area can be the operating room;
(8) Equipment as specified by rule;
(9) Emergency drugs as specified by rule;
(10) A defibrillator device.
(d) Before inducing general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation the dentist shall:
(1) Evaluate the patient and document, using the ASA Patient Physical Status Classifications, that the patient is an appropriate candidate for general anesthesia or deep conscious sedation;
(2) Shall give written preoperative and postoperative instructions to the patient or, when appropriate due to age or neurological status of the patient, the patient's guardian; and
(3) Shall obtain written informed consent from the patient or patient's guardian for the anesthesia.
(e) A dentist who induces general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation shall ensure that the patient's condition is monitored and recorded on a contemporaneous record. The dentist shall use a qualified monitor to monitor and record the patient's condition on a contemporaneous record and a chair side dental assistant. The documented requirements of a qualified monitor monitoring general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation cases are as specified by rule. No permit holder may have more than one patient under general anesthesia at the same time.
(f) The patient shall be monitored as follows:
(1) Patients shall have continuous monitoring using pulse oximetry and/or equipment required for the standard of care or as specified by rule by a qualified monitor until discharge criteria have been met. The patient's blood pressure, heart rate and oxygen saturation shall be assessed every five minutes and shall be contemporaneously documented in the patient record. The record shall also include documentation of preoperative and postoperative vital signs, all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration including local anesthesia. The person administering the anesthesia may not leave the patient while the patient is under general anesthesia;
(2) During the recovery phase, the patient shall be monitored, including the use of pulse oximetry, by a qualified monitor; and
(3) A dentist may not release a patient who has undergone general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation except to the care of a responsible adult third party.
(4) When discharging a pediatric patient the dentist shall follow the current edition of AAPD Guidelines for the Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures.
(g) The dentist shall assess the patient's responsiveness using preoperative values as normal guidelines and discharge the patient only when the following criteria are met:
(1) Vital signs including blood pressure, pulse rate and respiratory rate are stable;
(2) The patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time as appropriate to age and preoperative neurological status;
(3) The patient can talk and respond coherently to verbal questioning or to preoperative neurological status;
(4) The patient can sit up unaided or to preoperative neurological status;
(5) The patient can ambulate with minimal assistance or to preoperative neurological status; and
(6) The patient does not have uncontrollable nausea or vomiting and has minimal dizziness.
(7) A discharge entry shall be made in the patient's record by the dentist indicating the patient's condition upon discharge and the name of the responsible party to whom the patient was discharged.
(h) A dentist who induces general anesthesia shall employ the services of a qualified monitor and a chair side dental assistant at all times, who each shall hold a valid BLS/CPR certification and maintains certification as specified by rule.
§30-4A-8. Board to review, inspect and reinspect dentists for issuance of permits.
(a) By making application to the board for an anesthesia permit, a dentist consents and authorizes the board to review his or her credentials, inspect or reinspect his or her facilities and investigate any alleged anesthesia mortalities, misadventure or other adverse occurrences. The board shall conduct an in-office review or on-site inspection of any dentist applying for or holding a permit to administer anesthesia.
Prior to issuing a permit, the board shall conduct an on-site inspection of facility, equipment and auxiliary personnel of the applicant to determine if, in fact, all the requirements for the permit have been met. This inspection or evaluation, if required, shall be carried out by at least two members of the subcommittee. This evaluation is to be carried out in a manner following the principles, but not necessarily the procedures, set forth by the current edition of the AAOMS Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual. On-site inspections are required and shall be performed for all Class 3a, 3b and 4 permitees. The board may reinspect annually, at its discretion, but shall perform an on-site inspection for all permit holders at least once every five years except Class 2 permit holders. The board reserves the right to conduct an on-site inspection whenever it deems necessary for all permit holders. All on-site inspections shall be held during regular business hours.
(b) Cancellation or failure to appear or be present for a scheduled evaluation by a permit holder, for an unexplained or unexcusable reason, shall be assessed a penalty fee two times the permit holders normal annual renewal fee. The penalty fee shall be separate from the annual renewal fees.
§30-4A-9. Office evaluations.
(a) The in-office evaluation shall include:
(1) Observation of one or more cases of anesthesia to determine the appropriateness of technique and adequacy of patient evaluation and care;
(2) Inspection of facilities, which shall include but not be limited to, the inspection of equipment, drugs and patient records and qualified monitor's certifications and documentation; and
(3) The evaluation shall be performed by a team appointed by the board and shall include a member of the subcommittee who holds a current anesthesia permit in the same class or in a higher class than that held by the permit holder being evaluated.
(4) Class 2 permit holders may be audited periodically as determined by the committee; and
(5) Class 3 and 4 permit holders shall be evaluated once every five years.
(b) A dentist utilizing a licensed dentist who holds a current anesthesia permit issued by the board shall have his or her office inspected to the level of a Class 4 permit as specified by section twelve of this article. The office is only approved at that level when the anesthesia permit holder is present and shall have the number of qualified monitors present as required by this article.
(c) In addition to the requirements of this article, a treating dentist who applies for a certificate to allow a CRNA to administer anesthesia and sedation to a patient shall maintain a permit as follows:
(1) A treating dentist who allows a CRNA to administer limited enteral sedation to a patient shall maintain a Class 3a permit for themselves and the administration site shall be inspected to a Class 4 permit level;
(2) A treating dentist who allows a CRNA to administer comprehensive parenteral sedation to a patient shall maintain a Class 3b permit for themselves and the administration site shall be inspected to a Class 4 permit level; and
(3) A treating dentist who allows a CRNA to administer general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation to a patient shall maintain a Class 4 permit for themselves and the administration site shall be inspected to a Class 4 permit level.
§30-4A-10. Reporting of Death, Serious Complications or Injury.
If a death, any serious complication or any injury occurs which may have resulted from the administration of general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation, conscious sedation/moderate sedation, anxiolysis/minimal sedation, or relative analgesia/minimal sedation, the licensee performing the dental procedure shall submit a written detailed report to the board within seventy-two hours of the incident along with copies of the patient's original complete dental records. If the anesthetic agent was administered by a person other than the person performing the dental procedure, that person shall also submit a detailed written report. The detailed report(s) shall include:
(1) Name, age and address of patient;
(2) Name of the licensee and other persons present during the incident along with their names and addresses;
(3) Address where the incident took place;
(4) Type of anesthesia and dosages of drugs administered to the patient including local anesthesia;
(5) A narrative description of the incident including approximate times and evolution of symptoms; and
(6) The anesthesia record and the signed informed consent form for the anesthesia.
§30-4A-11. Immunity from liability.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person providing information to the board or to the subcommittee may be held, by reason of having provided the information, to be civilly liable under any law unless the information was false and the person providing information knew or had reason to believe the such information was false.
(b) No member or employee of the board or the subcommittee may be held by reason of the performance by him or her of any duty, function or activity authorized or required of the board or the subcommittee to be civilly liable. The foregoing provisions of this subsection do not apply with respect to any action taken by any individual if the individual, in taking the action, was motivated by malice toward any person affected by the action.
§30-4A-12. Facility Inspections.
(a) The board shall perform an onsite evaluation of Class 3 and 4 applicants dental facilities, equipment, techniques and personnel prior to issuing a permit. The board may conduct further on-site evaluations.
(b) The board may inspect Class 2 applicants facilities.
§30-4A-13. Issuance of regular annual permits.
Upon the recommendation of the subcommittee, the board shall issue permits to applicable dentists. An anesthesia permit shall be renewed annually: Provided, That the permittee meets the requirements of this article and has not been subject to disciplinary action prohibiting issuance of the permit.
§30-4A-14. Waiting period for reapplication or reinspection of facilities.
A dentist whose application has been denied for failure to satisfy the requirements in the application procedure or the on-site evaluation shall wait thirty days from the date of the denial prior to reapplying and shall submit to another on-site evaluation prior to receiving a permit. The board and the subcommittee shall promptly reinspect the applicant dentist's facilities, techniques, equipment and personnel within ninety days after the applicant has made reapplication.
§30-4A-15. Application and annual renewal of regular permits; fees.
The board shall require an initial application fee and an annual renewal fee for Class 2, Class 3 and 4 Permits. Permits expire annually. The board shall renew permits for the use of anesthesia after the permittee satisfies the application for renewal.
§30-4A-16. Violations of article; penalties for practicing anesthesia without a permit.
Violations of any of the provisions of this article, whether intentional or unintentional, may result in the revocation or suspension of the dentist's permit to administer anesthesia; multiple or repeated violations or gross infractions, such as practicing anesthesia without a valid permit may result in suspension of the dentist's license to practice dentistry for up to one year as well as other disciplinary measures as deemed appropriate by the board.
§30-4A-17. Appointment of Subcommittee; credentials review; and on-site inspections.
(a) The board shall appoint a subcommittee to carry out the review and on-site inspection of any dentist applying for or renewing a permit under this article.
(b) The subcommittee shall make a recommendation for issuing or revoking a permit under this article.
(c) This subcommittee shall be known as the West Virginia Board of Dentistry Subcommittee on Anesthesia. The subcommittee shall, at a minimum, consist of one member of the board who shall act as chairman of the subcommittee and two members holding a Class 4 permit and two members holding a Class 3 permit.
(d) The subcommittee shall adopt policies and procedures related to the regulation of general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation, conscious sedation/moderate sedation, anxiolysis/minimal sedation, and relative analgesia/minimal sedation with the same being approved by the board. The subcommittee members shall be paid and reimbursed expenses pursuant to article one of this chapter.
§30-4A-18.
Repealed.
Acts, 2013 Reg. Sess., Ch. 150.